CompTIA CSA+ Study Guide. Mike Chapple
You may want to have Internet connectivity for some exercises or to update software packages. If you are reasonably certain you know what you are doing, using a NAT network can be very helpful. To do so, you will need to go to the File ➢ Preferences menu of VirtualBox, click on Network, and then set up a NAT network by clicking the network card with a + icon, as shown in Figure E.3.
FIGURE E.3 Adding the a NAT network
Warning: Dangerous Traffic!
If you are not comfortable with your virtual machines having outbound network access, think you might do something dangerous with them, or just want to avoid any other potential issues, you should set up both virtual machines to use Internal Network instead.
5. Once your NAT network exists, you can set both machines to use it by clicking on them, and then clicking the Settings gear icon in the VirtualBox interface. From there, click Network, and set the network adapter to be attached to the NAT network you just set up. (See Figure E.4.)
FIGURE E.4 Configuring VMs for the NAT network
6. Now you’re all set! You can start both machines and test to verify that they can see each other. To do this, simply log into the Metasploitable box and run ifconfig to find its IP address. Use ssh [ip address] ‐l msfadmin to SSH from the Kali Linux system to the Metasploitable system. If you connect and can log in, you’re ready to run exercises between the two systems!
Objectives Map for CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CSA+) Exam CS0-001
The following objective map for the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CSA+) certification exam will enable you to find the chapter in this book, which covers each objective for the exam.
If you’re considering taking the Cybersecurity Analyst+ exam, you should have already taken and passed the CompTIA Security+ and Network+ exams and should have 3–4 years of experience in the field. You may also already hold other equivalent certifications. The following assessment test help to make sure that you have the knowledge that you should have before you tackle the Cybersecurity Analyst+ certification and will help you determine where you may want to spend the most time with this book.
1 After running an nmap scan of a system, you receive scan data that indicates the following three ports are open:
What services commonly run on these ports?
A. SMTP, NetBIOS, MySQL
B. SSH, Microsoft DS, WINS
C. SSH, HTTPS, Oracle
D. FTP, HTTPS, MS-SQL
2 Which of the following tools is best suited to querying data provided by organizations like the American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN) as part of a footprinting or reconnaissance exercise?
3 What type of system allows attackers to believe they have succeeded with their attack, thus providing defenders with information about their attack methods and tools?
A. A honeypot
B. A sinkhole
C. A crackpot
D. A darknet
4 What cybersecurity objective could be achieved by running your organization’s web servers in redundant, geographically separate datacenters?
5 Which of the following vulnerability scanning methods will provide the most accurate detail during a scan?
A. Black box
C. Internal view
D. External view
What is the attack vector and the impact to integrity based on this rating?
A. System, 9, 8
B. Browser, High
C. Network, High
D. None, High
7 Alice is a security engineer tasked with performing vulnerability scans for her organization. She encounters a false positive error in one of her scans. What should she do about this?
A. Verify that it is a false positive, and then document the exception
B. Implement a workaround
C. Update the vulnerability scanner
D. Use an authenticated scan, and then document the vulnerability
8 Which phase of the incident response process is most likely to include gathering additional evidence such as information that would support legal action?
B. Detection and Analysis
C. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
D. Post-Incident Activity and Reporting
9 Which of the following descriptions explains an integrity loss?
A. Systems were taken offline, resulting in a loss of business income.
B. Sensitive or proprietary information was changed or deleted.
C. Protected information was accessed or exfiltrated.
D. Sensitive personally identifiable information was accessed or exfiltrated.
10 Which of the following techniques is an example of active monitoring?
D. A network tap
11 Ben’s monitoring detects regular traffic sent from a system that is suspected to be compromised and participating in a botnet to a set of remote IP addresses. What is this called?
A. Anomalous pings
C. Zombie chatter
12 Which of the following tools is not useful for monitoring memory usage in Linux?
D. Regional Internet registries like ARIN are best queried either via their websites or using tools like Whois. Nmap is a useful port scanning utility, traceroute is used for testing the path packets take to a remote system, and regmon is an outdated Windows Registry tool that has been supplanted by Process Monitor.
A. Honeypots are systems that are designed to look like attractive targets. When they are attacked, they simulate a compromise, providing defenders with a chance to see how attackers operate and what tools they use. DNS sinkholes provide false information to malicious software, redirecting queries about command and control systems to allow remediation. Darknets are segments of unused network space that are monitored to detect traffic – since legitimate traffic should never be aimed at the darknet, this can be used to detect attacks and other unwanted traffic. Crackpots are eccentric people – not a system you’ll run into on a network.
D. Redundant systems, particularly when run in multiple locations and with other protections to ensure uptime, can help provide availability.
B. An authenticated, or credentialed, scan provides the most detailed view of the system. Black-box assessments presume no knowledge of a system and would not have credentials or an agent to work with on the system. Internal views typically provide more detail than external views, but neither provides the same level of detail that credentials can allow.
C. When reading the CVSS 3.0 score, AV is the attack vector. Here, N means network. Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A) are listed at the end of the listing, and all three are rated as High in this CVSS rating.
A. When Alice encounters a false positive error in her scans, her first action should be to verify it. This may involve running a more in-depth scan like an authenticated scan, but could also involve getting assistance from system administrators, checking documentation, or other validation actions. Once she is done, she should document the exception so that it is properly tracked. Implementing a workaround is not necessary for false positive vulnerabilities, and updating the scanner should be done before every vulnerability scan. Using an authenticated scan might help but does not cover all of the possibilities for validation she may need to use.
C. The Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of an incident includes steps to limit damage and document what occurred, including potentially identifying the attacker and tools used for the attack. This means that information useful to legal actions is most likely to be gathered during this phase.
B. Integrity breaches involve data being modified or deleted. Systems being taken offline is an availability issue, protected information being accessed might be classified as a breach of proprietary information, and sensitive personally identifiable information breaches would typically be classified as privacy breaches.
A. Active monitoring sends traffic like pings to remote devices as part of the monitoring process. RMON and netflows are both examples of router-based monitoring, whereas network taps allow passive monitoring.
D. Regular traffic from compromised systems to command and control nodes is known as beaconing. Anomalous pings could describe unexpected pings, but they are not typically part of botnet behavior, zombie chatter is a made-up term, and probing is part of scanning behavior in some cases.
C. The df command is used to show the amount of free and used disk space. Each of the other commands can show information about memory usage in Linux.